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Permalink Reply by Skip Peel - Mineral Consultant on April 9, 2012 at 13:24

When a deed does not specifically state a reservation of minerals legal precedent tends to support that the deed conveyed any and all mineral rights associated with the surface estate.

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Permalink Reply by Bobi Carr ("parker") on April 10, 2012 at 2:53

Ken,

  Even if you received ALL of the rights of the Vendor for property that you purchased, does not mean that they ACTUALLY owned the mineral rights.  It just means that you acquired whatever they owned.

  Also, if Mineral Rights did transfer to you, the property could still be subject to an existing lease.

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Permalink Reply by The_Baron on April 10, 2012 at 8:15

or even royalty deeds...

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