Replies to This Discussion

Permalink Reply by The_Baron on December 3, 2008 at 17:55

Good night.

its a little heavy, it contains quite a bit of geologic unit, not many of those up here, but it is very informative.

Permalink Reply by The_Baron on December 3, 2008 at 18:09

All unit orders are on SONRIS. They can be accesed through the document access feature.

You will need to know what field you are interested in. Pull up the black book index for that field. it will give gerenal descriptions of all the orders for that field.

Keep in mind, each formation (James, hosston, cotton valley, Haynesville, etc..) will have its own unit independent of the others.

Permalink Reply by The_Baron on December 3, 2008 at 17:21

Units can be formed at any time. Many times a unit is not formed until after well is drilled.

A section is 640 acres. Units in North LA are typically geographic units consisting of one section . This is not set in stone. units can vary, esp by water bodies, state lines, etc...

In south La it is common to se geological units, these are the shape of the supposed resevoir. They change in shape as more wells are drilled and more knowledge of the resvoirs shape is determined. These can strech like an ameoba over multiple sections.

If your land is not unitized, a well on adjacent tracts will not interupt prescription or pay royalties if it produces unless your tract is included in the unit. If you owned 100 acres, and only 10 acres were in a producing unit, royalties would only be pain on the acres in the unit, and prescription would only be interupted opn the 10 acres in the unit.

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Permalink Reply by The_Baron on December 3, 2008 at 17:22

Almost all Ha units to date are one section of 640 acres plus or minus. Unit lines are usully along section lines.

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Permalink Reply by Snake Stewart on December 3, 2008 at 16:19

No well that I am aware of Graysands.

If the well in question was drilled and capped,4 years after I bought the land, prescription would take a total of 14 years from when the initial purchase was made. At what point would the original owner lose the right to lease, or would he ? Is there a definitive explanation of what constitutes an interuption of prescription ? In other words, is it left up to interpretation or is there a guildline that can be followed in the mineral code ? I have read the code but cant follow like you guys.Thanks again for your input. You are doing a great service to this community.

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Permalink Reply by Bobi Carr ("parker") on December 3, 2008 at 16:21

The original owner would be able to lease as long as he owns minerals.

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Permalink Reply by Bobi Carr ("parker") on December 3, 2008 at 16:23

Snake,

I don't believe there is a definitive explanation.

I believe the standard is a good faith attempt. (What constitutes a good faith attempt).

I'm sure there is some case law on the issue and thereby some guidelines.

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Permalink Reply by The_Baron on December 3, 2008 at 16:33

There have been many cases over the years. I'm sure KB can dig up some.

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Permalink Reply by The_Baron on December 3, 2008 at 16:22

To interupt prescription, a bona fide attempt to explore for minerals must be made.

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Permalink Reply by ELLIS HUGH on December 3, 2008 at 16:34

I am not sure if I am thinking of a shut-in provision or prescription. But, I think, the 10 year prescription for non-use would begin anew starting with the last date of marketable production in the case of a shut-in well (as opposed to the actual shut-in date). I am not sure of this, simply adding my opinion for discussion. Rest assured, "someone" will be by shortly to end all speculation.

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Permalink Reply by Grice on December 4, 2008 at 3:45

KB, since your quoting articles of the law, could you also quote article 35? I believe it merits comprehension.

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Permalink Reply by The_Baron on December 4, 2008 at 4:02

I would disagree. If a unit was created in 1950, and a well was not drilled untill 1990, prescription would have run, the surface owner would have the minerals, and the surface owner would have leased the land for the 1990 well.

Now if the well had been drilled in 1950, was productive and shut in, but was not hooked up to a pipeline untill 1990, that might be different. I would assume there would be serious lease issues though. I would assume that the well could not be shut in for 40 years, that the well would be considered abandoned. What do you think KB...

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