I am wondering that if someone sold you property , and later find out they had minerals rights withheld by the previous owner and they purchased it in 2001. Who has the mineral rights? Please let me know if anyone has heard something like this. Also if no mineral why is the o&g sending signed contacts and still wanting to lease if the possibilty of the present owner does not have mineral rights? thank you

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It's my understanding mineral rights can be held for a period of 10 years at which time they revert to the current surface owner as long as there has been no production in the section.
I don't think there is any requirement to disclose who has the mineral rights in a sale. It's up to the buyer to do the homework. (Probably should have been caught during the title search). The real problem is until this all broke loose, for most areas mineral rights were next to worthless so no one gave it a second thought.
Thank you Joe:)
Thank You MTS Spaces:)
The longest the previous owners could hold the rights is until the same date the deed was signed in the year 2011. However, I am hearing that the companies more than likely know who owns the rights and if you got a letter, its probably you. The best advice is to go to the court house and confirm, they'll tell you for sure.
We bought 4 acres in Benton 1.5 year ago without the mineral rights (who knew!). We also have 1.4 acre in Lakewood Sub. which does have the rights (at least I don't kick myself all the time). I doubt seriously that there will be no activity for another 8.5 years up in Benton, BUT how would you know? And, I wonder what happens when the rights "revert". Any type of process/documentation that would need to be done? (I seriously doubt I'll get a Hallmark card to mark the occasion - "Congrats On Your Reversion!!") Would I have to "claim" them? Just wondering...
You will not have to claim the mineral rights.

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