Replies to This Discussion

Permalink Reply by Bobi Carr ("parker") on July 14, 2008 at 18:29

I own property that is "held by production" from the 1920's. When I purcashed the property I assumed it had the minerals. It does not.
It was not "disclosed". I don't beleive the title company or the owner has the obligation to disclose mineral ownership.
As shown above, if there is no drilling for 10 years the minerals will revert to you - if they were previously reserved.
If however, they were previously reserved and there is production, they are "held by production" until 10 years after production.

Permalink Reply by Bobi Carr ("parker") on July 15, 2008 at 15:46

If mineral rights are not reserved they go with the property (unless they were previously reserved).

Check with one of the companies that are leasing, they will let you know if you own the minerals or not.

Don't get you hopes up though if they initially tell you - you own the mineral rights. Twin Cities had agreed lease properties in Southgate Estates then had to back out once they realized the property owners did not own the minerals.

GOOD LUCK.

Permalink Reply by herefordsnshale on July 15, 2008 at 11:12

It can be EXTREMELY hard to nail where mineral rights are, like we've talked about before, mineral rights are not taxed like real estate is so there's no list at the tax assessor's office where you can just go look it up. It can take a lot of research. Also, no one ever tells you if they do revert back. I found out when a landman called me wanting to lease in 2006. I always thought they never let mineral rights expire, and they try not to, but mine reverted back and other people's have too it looks like. If this were a perfect world, mineral rights or at least a percentage of them should follow the surface rights. It just seems wrong when the person who owns the land benefits none from the mineral activity.

Permalink Reply by Bobi Carr ("parker") on July 15, 2008 at 15:22

I agree whole heartedly on the issue that surface owner should retain some interest. They are the ones that have to suffer the nuisance when drilling occured. A few years ago, a well was drilled close to where I lived. The noise would have sounded more like music if I were getting a mailbox check.

Permalink Reply by herefordsnshale on July 16, 2008 at 11:21

When I go out to do a timber appraisal, I can tell immediately whether or not the surface owner has the minerals, as soon as I meet him. His manner is just that obvious!

Permalink Reply by DESOTO EXCIT on July 17, 2008 at 12:35

what i have heard is if there is no production at all in ten years- then it goes to
the owners--my understanding that started once you bought

Permalink Reply by herefordsnshale on July 17, 2008 at 13:35

That's right, if there's no production in your unit for ten years the mineral rights revert back to the surface owners. Regardless of how long you've owned the land, regardless of whether it's mortgaged.

Permalink Reply by james anderson A1 on July 18, 2008 at 16:13

if a person owned the property for 10 years, sold the property, but retained the mineral rights, how would he go about working with this to get the mineral rights?

Permalink Reply by Snake Stewart on July 18, 2008 at 16:31

If you retained mineral rights per deed description of sold property , the rights would be yours for ten years after the sell. Unless a producing well holds these rights to you indefinatly before the 10 year time limit expires.Hope this helps.

Permalink Reply by james anderson A1 on July 18, 2008 at 16:41

what could i get to show that, and where would i get it?

Permalink Reply by Snake Stewart on July 18, 2008 at 17:03

I would assume the bill of sale or copy of the lease stating held minerals.Should be on file at the courthouse in the parish this land is located.

• ‹ Previous
• 1
• 2
• Next ›
• Page