The following statement is a line in my Cash Sale Deed to my property:
"Subject to all prior recorded restrictions, servitudes and mineral rights."
Does this mean I do not have the mineral rights? Or...is this a generic statement in most/all deeds and means I just better go the the Court House and view conveyance records?

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If you have owned your property less than 10 yrs , you might not own your mineral rights. You should definitely have someone look at your recorded deed in the courthouse. Sounds like the prior owner was reserving the minerals. Just my thinking on this???
straight boilerplate language. Notice that it says 'subject to all prior recorded.....', so go check the public records, No record = no lease. If the deed mentioned that the seller was reserving mineral rights....you are out of luck unless the servitude has prescribed by non-use of ten years.
Many title companies put that just to cover their butts.
It looks like a generic statement, but then again it might have been put there because someone knew the mineral rights had been reserved. I would check the deeds.
I read that statement 20 times a day, it is boilerplate.

It also does legally cover them, of course check it thoroughly.

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