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Permalink Reply by alleyboy on July 26, 2008 at 2:10

If you have owned your property less than 10 yrs , you might not own your mineral rights. You should definitely have someone look at your recorded deed in the courthouse. Sounds like the prior owner was reserving the minerals. Just my thinking on this???

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Permalink Reply by elgato on July 26, 2008 at 5:13

straight boilerplate language. Notice that it says 'subject to all prior recorded.....', so go check the public records, No record = no lease. If the deed mentioned that the seller was reserving mineral rights....you are out of luck unless the servitude has prescribed by non-use of ten years.

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Permalink Reply by Randy on July 26, 2008 at 6:30

Many title companies put that just to cover their butts.

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Permalink Reply by herefordsnshale on July 26, 2008 at 8:46

It looks like a generic statement, but then again it might have been put there because someone knew the mineral rights had been reserved. I would check the deeds.

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Permalink Reply by Randy on July 26, 2008 at 8:50

I read that statement 20 times a day, it is boilerplate.

It also does legally cover them, of course check it thoroughly.

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