Does a deed have to specifically state what to do with the mineral rights, or is it enough to just say,


"grant, bargain, sell, convey, and deliver, with full guarantee  of title, and with complete transfer and subrogation of all rights and actions........."?

Doe the "all rights" mean mineral rights as well.

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When a deed does not specifically state a reservation of minerals legal precedent tends to support that the deed conveyed any and all mineral rights associated with the surface estate.

Ken,

  Even if you received ALL of the rights of the Vendor for property that you purchased, does not mean that they ACTUALLY owned the mineral rights.  It just means that you acquired whatever they owned.

  Also, if Mineral Rights did transfer to you, the property could still be subject to an existing lease.

or even royalty deeds...

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