Foreclose, Commercial property, no bank subrogation (they didn't sign off on the oil and gas lease). I purchased the minerals from the bank so I am now an unleased mineral owner. At the time of drilling and for a few years after the minerals were under lease executed by the borrower.
So am I, as an unleased mineral owner, responsible for the costs of the well? (aka, do I have to wait for the well to payoff before i start receiving a royalty). Assuming I shouldn't have to pay for the drilling costs what do I do?
I appreciate any help/advice.