O.K. guys and gals. I have a friend that ran a scenario by me that I need your help on. You
know I dont like to admit that I dont know something so please be gentle. I know we have covered some of this before but just humor me. There is a method to my madness. This isnt a trick question and any comments will be greatly appreciated.
Here goes.....................

I am going to buy a piece of property consisting of 10 acres. I agree to purchase said property with 50% of the minerals being retained by the current owner. I will get the other 50%.

Lets say ole Snake gets a well drilled just as soon as he buys the property. Some cats out of Houston jack up the frac and ruin my well.( just kidin' Houston ) We have to cap the well without ever receiving any royalty whatsoever.

Time moves ever so slowly forward.5 1/2 years pass by and I find someone else willing to give me a lease. I am now, through the magic of HS, at the end of said lease.I have now owned the land for 10+ years. I have never received any royalty whatsoever.


In the State of Louisiana......Is there any reason in the world that I would not now own 100% of my minerals ?

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P.G.,

Yes Kassi's group did have the problem you mentioned.

They own the mineral rights because there was no drilling to interrupt prescription, BUT THEY ARE SUBJECT TO THE TERMS OF THE EXISTING LEASE.

These are two completely different subjects. They are very easy to confuse though.
P. G.:

I very much agree with Parker on this one.

The mere presence of an existing lease DOES NOT AFFECT mineral title, nor does it interrupt prescription. If you become the owner of property in which minerals have been conveyed, or in which minerals prescribe to you due to lack of use, it is quite possible to become the owner of mineral rights SUBJECT TO AN EXISTING OIL, GAS AND MINERAL LEASE (as what happened to Kassi's group).

The specific issue that is going on with Kassi's group is that an old OGML that did not contain a Pugh Clause has been and is being maintained by a well or wells located off of the old lease, but a portion of the lands leased from which their tracts has been created (by subdivision) has been held by production in an existing oil and gas unit. While the minerals may have been sold by conveyance or prescribed due to lack of use, the lease still holds, and their ownership is subject to the lease.
not really PG, we are talking about prescription of mineral rights. This has nothing to do with the fact that the land might be leased or not.

Take this example:

I buy 400 acres from Parker, The land is spread equally over 4 sections (100 acres in each section)Parker keeps his minerals. Parker leases all his minerals the same day.

One year later a well is drilled in one section, not on this land. A unit is formed that includes one of the sections, so 100 acres of my 400 is in the unit. Prescription is interupted on that 100 acres unitized, but not the other 300 acres. Nine years later I get the minerals back on the 300 acres, but not the 100 in the producing unit. But,....parker messed up (sorry Parker, just an example) and didn't get a horizontal pugh, so I'm still covered by his lease.
Just because we're having so much fun... Let me throw this situation into the mix. Buyer and seller may contract to create a servitude (by reservation of minerals) that unit operations affecting all or a portion of the servitude shall serve to extend the entire of the servitude. See La. R. S. 31:75.

If such done in conjunction in the hypothetical sale above, Parker still has all of her minerals.
Permalink Reply by The_Baron 7 hours ago
Parker leases all his minerals the same day.

Reply by Wilmer Sparks 10 hours ago
The legal definations provided by Mr. KB can be explained.....

For the official record , both Parker and KB are Super Chicks, Haynesville Shale Hussies or some other more respectful form of female title. I also know that both have probably been called other , not so flattering names, but that isnt the point.(chuckle,chuckle) Just kidin' ladies! Wanted to clear the air and give you all the feminine props that I could.
But it is fun to speculate.
Ah KB, But there have been many fine answers given and many more questions asked and answered alike and I owe you all.......appreciate everything that you guys have done. The fine people afiliated with this site have just poured out $5,000,000 worth of legal advice, knowledge, court proceedings,landman field work,mineral law, hands on experience and deeply thought out scenario breaking horse sense.By being so broad in my question , it allowed the wheels to really turn and to give you room to do what you do. Where as if I had just asked about the land being unitized or about the other owner leasing, we wouldnt have had all of the other scenarios played out.

I wished that I could have been more specific at the time but I am glad that I wasnt now. This discussion has given me, an answer , to the question that caused me to ask you guys in the first place and has given much food for thought as well.

Its kinda like keeping a wild mustang penned up beside the house too long. You guys needed to stretch your legs a little anyway. HA!HA!HA!
Thanks again! Keep it coming.
You mean to tell somebody on here takes pot shots, pokes holes, and will also hit you with the dreaded cheap shots. Please introduce me I like to shake their hand.
OK, lets don't take the cheap shots unless they are being a jerk (in somebodys opinion).
O.K. BirdDawg,
When is someone not being a jerk, in somebodies opinion, at any given time on this site ? (LOL)

Fire away!
If its a good hole....you betcha
Aren't you just supposed to put in your TP, sprinkle some dirt over it, and leave the hole open, or would that just qualify as temporary abandonment?

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