I read somewhere that when the government owns mineral rights in a section that they only have 25 acres on the the north border of the section. Is there any substance to this and where might I have read it? Am I way off base?

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I have never heard or seen that happen in the areas where I have worked. When the goverment realized there was money involved in minerals then they came to the conclusion that they wanted it all not just part.
This is a homestead and the Government owns a percentage of the mineral rights.
Is it the state or fed gov? Were the patents granted at different times on different tracts? The only time that I have seen this happen is when more than one person owned the tract and each was taxed for their portion that they owned. One would fail to pay tax and that portion would go to the state government and not be redeamed after the tax sale or would be redeamed after the 3 year time limit for redemption. I have only seen this happen during the great depression when no one had any money to bid at the tax sale.

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Posted by Char on May 29, 2025 at 14:42

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