What happens if spouse's name and signature are left off a Oil & Gas Lease?

What happens if, through a series of transactions, minerals which were once seperate property become community property and the landman hired by the Oil and Gas company apparently misses it? The lease was signed by only one spouse a year ago and that name is the only one that appears on the lease. In the meantime the minerals were sold to a third party who discovers the error. Would an undivided 1/2 of the minerals be unleased? It would seem the buyer would be able to count on the public record.

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That means 1/2 of the minerals are unleased. Who bought the lease?
Cabot in Texas
Hardage, are you referring to the buyer of the lease or the buyer of the minerals? Both husband and wife signed the Mineral Deed, but only the husband signed the lease. On the mineral, deed the properties are described as recorded in the vol and page of the county deed records, with the catch all phrase that it is the seller's intention so sell all their mineral rights in the county (this is in fact all they own in the county).
Are you saying that you would not rercommend asking the company if they would like to buy a lease on the wife's 19 acres, which are now the mineral buyer's 19 acres? It could probably be bought cheap.......say........by adding a no cost royalty clause to the existing lease.
I would think they might go with that. Wouldn't hurt to ask. If there is a warranty clause in the lease they may ask for half of their money back if the wife doesn't sign a ratification.
Then the best thing to do would be nothing at all and let them drill a well. At that time I'm sure their title attorney will determine that they don't have a full interest lease.
SB was this a shale lease?
TDP, the lease is dated 2009, after the Haynesville was discovered if that is what you mean by a shale lease. It is, in gereral, one of those very plain vanilla leases that strongly favor the Lessee. Has a 4 paragraph Exhibit A , with horizontal Pugh being the only one of significance. Hardage, I'm not too familiar with Texas....MIPA???
I am certain that Mineral owner will be very interested in leasing at very "reasonable terms" as his primary interest is getting a well drilled which the new mineral owner participates in. However, if the Operator is technically unleased on a portion of the minerals as a result of an error of Operator's Leasing Agent in preparing the lease with previous Mineral Owner, the new Mineral Owner has no objection of leasing anew, on very favorable terms, of course, maybe even free with the right Exhibit A.
Spring, I'd re-read and follow what Hardage stated.
Kat, I intend to do that, but I must first figure out where tio find the rules and regs of the MIPA. since I don't know what MIPA stands for. And thank you, Kat.
MIPA = Tx. Mineral Interest Pooling Act. Hardage is referring to a rule which states that "the interest owner must have made a fair and reasonable offer to pool".

This article explains the Act:

http://www.associatedcontent.com/article/134375/a_snapshot_pooling_...
Jfree to the rescue again!

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